Weird Rules

I have come across some really weird rules in studying the Major League and NC High School rule books, but this one is one of the weirdest. Rule 7-1 Art 4 (under balk) " if the pitcher with a runner on base. stops or hesitates in his delivery because the batter steps out of the box with both feet without requesting time from the umpire and delivers the pitch, (regardless of where the pitch was .....even a ball.... and if the umpire judges that it was a deliberate attempt to cause a balk, shall call the pitch a strike and also call a strike for the batters box violation, therefore 2 strikes are called on one pitch. Of course this is only in HS rules not Major League rules. Also under the balk rule, it states it is NOT a balk if a pitcher while touching the pitchers plate, throws or feints to an unoccupied base as long as it is in an attempt to put out or drive back a runner. This rule is totally confusing to me and opens up a Pandoras' box, on the balk rule which is already (in my opinion) confusing as all get up......Your comments are appreciated.

 

I can understand the first part of that ruling. The old standby interpretation of a balk was an attempt to deceive the runner/batter. It stands to reason that the batter would be under the same restrictions as the pitcher.

The 2nd part makes NO SENSE at all. If you follow the same logic (attempt to deceive), then throwing to an unoccupied base while still in contact with the runner is obviously an attempt to deceive. Example: Runner at first, the pitcher is in the stretch, but expects a steal attempt. Instead of delivering the ball home, he throws to 3rd. He's started a "move" which could deceive the runner and the throw for the defense from 3rd to 2nd is much shorter, leading to an easy out. Its confusing ... if the runner DID break to steal, it's not a balk. If the runner makes NO MOVE to steal, then, by definition IT IS a balk.

My head is spinning ............

 

Clarification

In think the rule states that the pitcher can throw to the unoccupied base in front of the runner as long as it is to make a play on the runner Example: Runner at 2nd base with a right handed pitcher, the runner at 2nd breaks early enough that the pitcher see's this and without making any illegal movements with his shoulders or feet throws to third base to get the runner attempting to advance. The rule book doesn't state that the pitcher doesn't have to separate to do this, or not.

In the game in question though the pitcher never separated from the rubber and this I think should have made it a balk.

Or at least that is my version of the story.

 

Yankee Fan

I certainly agree with your interpretation, and it had been mine for some time too, but the rule book Rule 7-1 Art 4 b, definately says "while touching the pitchers plate" ?? In fact, I have seen it called that way 2x so far this year. One was in the Jack Sink Tourney.

 

The rule states that you may throw to an unoccupied base if your intent is to make a play or force back a runner. Not many coaches know this one... basically it gives the pitcher the right (while on the rubber) to put out an advancing runner without having to step off the rubber. The pro rule is the same, but the interpretation is a little different. The pro interpretation is that the runner must be about half way to the next base before the pitcher can throw to the unoccupied base. But the high school rule doesn't make that distinction - I think its put in there to help keep runner from trying to make the pitcher balk on an early break. Bottom line is the only base you can't feint or throw to while unoccupied is 1st base. Which brings up a great question - why is 1st base so special? You can't feint on the rubber to 1st, but you can any other base. You must run in the running lane while running to 1st, but no other base has a running lane. And every other base, your basepath is determined by the runner, so if you're picked off at first, you can run in a direct path toward the SS covering 2nd to tag you out, therefore making it a tough throw for the 1st basemen. But while running to 1st you can't run inside the foul line if the 1st basemen is set up there waiting on a throw from the catcher on a bunt... why??? 1st base has many special rules that apply to it and not any other bases, I think the other bases may get jealous.


Here's a good trivia question: Do all four bases make a perfect diamond? Why or why not?

#52

 

another balk call i don't undrstand, or didn't know about.

friday night while attempting a bunt trap we were called for a balk because the 2nd baseman supposedly broke the plain of the mound. the ump told me an infielder could not break the plain of the mound before the pitch was thrown. anyone ever heard of this rule before??? we have been running bunt traps for 22 years and i have never heard of this one. granted our second baseman is suppose to break down around the mound area (for safety sake) any comments??

 

Balk Call on Bunt Trap

Now this one takes the cake If this in fact is a rule (and I cant find it in any HS or Major League Rule Book, then I know of at least 1000s of occurances where the 1B or 3B fielder have violated this rule when crashing in to defend the bunt and try to get a force at a leading base. Maybe some Umpire or Rule Book Statistician could cite the rule in question, to enlighten us mere mortals.......

 

bunt

That is simply not a rule. I don't know where that umpire got his info from or if he just made it up in his head, but he is wrong at least from NFHS (high school), NCAA & OBR's perspective. If it was a little league game or something, it may be a local safety rule, but not in high school & up. What game was this and who was the umpire, I might know him.

#52

 

not going to give you the name of the umpire of the game. it wouldn't be nice or fair to him. the only reason i posted it was to make sure I wasn't missing something.